Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

There's no rule.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

I am so tired of ignorant people like you calling us far rights, why democrats is so educated, they take things from their own mouth, you guys are totalitarian party?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

You'll usually find your answer there.

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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

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Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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